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 Author Thread: Is It Time to Secede Yet?
 pirateheaven

Joined: 5/11/2008
Msg: 51
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Is It Time to Secede Yet?
Posted: 11/5/2009 8:15:32 PM

Why would anyone want to put the party back in office that has not even tried to pass reform in healthcare or illegal immigration


Illegal immigration = ILLEGAL. No need to reform it, no need to support 'em, just deport them.

Govt Health care is unconstitutional period.

I will say the Republicans and Dems could have passed laws to lift the laws that prevent people from buying insurance across state lines. That is what the commerce clause is all about.
 a bit nomadic

Joined: 6/14/2006
Msg: 52
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Is It Time to Secede Yet?
Posted: 11/5/2009 8:24:38 PM

Illegal immigration = ILLEGAL. No need to reform it, no need to support 'em, just deport them.


Or you could look at it another way, and simply heavily penalize those who hire them? They come because there is a market for their labor. How about attacking the problem at its source?? Why does it seem as if the conservative way always to attack the vulnerable, rather than those who profit from their vulnerability?


Govt Health care is unconstitutional period.


Prove it. Period.


I will say the Republicans and Dems could have passed laws to lift the laws that prevent people from buying insurance across state lines. That is what the commerce clause is all about.


While I'm not enough of a constitutional scholar to really address this (and I suspect that neither are you), I wonder at this from an admitted secessionist. Hmmmm.... I can just imagine the "states rights" uproar if Washington began REALLY assaulting state privilege when it comes to internal matters such as this. First the insurance companies....next ? How about taking away individual state control over taxing of other consumer items...general sales, tobacco, etc.?
 Dasein2

Joined: 7/31/2009
Msg: 53
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Posted: 11/5/2009 8:31:46 PM
No proof yet.

**crickets**
 pirateheaven

Joined: 5/11/2008
Msg: 54
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Is It Time to Secede Yet?
Posted: 11/5/2009 8:40:17 PM
Or you could look at it another way, and simply heavily penalize those who hire them. They come because there is a market for their labor. How about attacking the problem at its source?? Why does it seem as if the conservative way always to attack the vulnerable, rather than those who profit from their vulnerability?


It was a bit chilly here this morning but hadn't realized Hell had frozen over. We may have a small agreement here. I think the companies that hire illegals should be fined heavily. We should also stop providing FREE services for illegals as well.

We also need to start deporting them and build a border fence.


Govt Health care is unconstitutional period.
Prove it. Period.


I have to admit I do this with some trepidation. For some people no amount of proof will ever be enough when the Constitution is at odds with what they want to believe in.

I think article clears up misconception that the General Welfare Clause gives congress to do just about anything including meddling in heath care insurance.

http://cnsnews.com/news/article/55851

Article I, Section 8, outlines the powers of Congress, including raising taxes, but not the purchasing any type of product or service. The opening paragraph of Section 8 grants Congress the power to raise taxes to, among other things, “provide for the … general welfare of the United States.”

Section 8 partly reads: “The Congress shall have Power to lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and general Welfare of the United States; but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States.”

The Constitution then details the specific powers of Congress, including raising an Army and Navy, promoting commerce between states, and to “make all laws necessary and proper” for the carrying out of these enumerated powers.

“To make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution the foregoing Powers, and all other Powers vested by this Constitution in the Government of the United States, or in any Department or Officer thereof,” concludes Section 8.

David B. Rivkin, a constitutional lawyer with Baker & Hostetler, told CNSNews.com that Hoyer’s argument [ for govt run health care] was “silly,” adding that if the general welfare clause was that elastic, then nothing would be outside of Congress’ powers.

“Congressman Hoyer is wrong,” Rivkin said. “The notion that the general welfare language is a basis for a specific legislative exercise is all silly because if that’s true, because general welfare language is inherently limitless, then the federal government can do anything.

Congress has not unlimited powers to provide for the general welfare, but only those specifically enumerated." - Thomas Jefferson, 1798


While I'm not enough of a constitutional scholar to really address this (and I suspect that neither or you), I wonder at this from an admitted secessionist. Hmmmm.... I can just imagine the "states rights" uproar if Washington began REALLY assaulting state privilege when it comes to internal matters such as this. First the insurance companies....next ?


The Commerce Clause does give the Congress the authority to promote commerce among the states. Since this a power enumerated in the Constitution, it is a right not reserved to the States.

I am not a constitutional expert but I have read it several times and read the Federalist Papers and other historical documents. That makes me more of an expert, than most Congressmen because they obviously have not read it OR ignore it.

That being said, if the Federal Govt passes unconstitutional laws, maybe the only way out is secession. Isn't that what the founders themselves did?
 Dasein2

Joined: 7/31/2009
Msg: 55
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Posted: 11/5/2009 8:55:09 PM

The Commerce Clause does give the Congress the authority to promote commerce among the states. Since this a power enumerated in the Constitution, it is a right not reserved to the States.


Glad you included this -- even though it is stuck at the bottom -- the Commerce Clause defeats your entire argument.

For futher research you may also want to consider the implications of the Dormant Commerce Clause.
 pirateheaven

Joined: 5/11/2008
Msg: 56
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Posted: 11/5/2009 9:07:20 PM

Glad you included this -- even though it is stuck at the bottom -- the Commerce Clause defeats your entire argument.


I beg to differ. I refer you to Federalist 41. If I am wrong so was James Madison the father of the Constitution.
 a bit nomadic

Joined: 6/14/2006
Msg: 57
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Posted: 11/5/2009 9:08:12 PM

We may have a small agreement here. I think the companies that hire illegals should be fined heavily. We should also stop providing FREE services for illegals as well.

We also need to start deporting them and build a border fence.


Why just fine them? They aren't just accessories, they are actually instigators. In most states, if you hire somebody to commit a crime then you are considered guilty of that crime. If a person HIRES an illegal (thereby providing the incentive for them to commit the crime of illegally immigrating) then why shouldn't his or her punishment be on a par with the person he or she hired?

Couldn't you make the argument that the person who HIRES an illegal immigrant is actually committing TWO criminal acts? First, doing the hiring. And second, providing incentive for the commission of a criminal act (on the part of the illegal worker?) Why should ONE person get deported and the other just get fined?

The fence, btw, is just offensive. Fencing civilizations never achieves anything but to create enhanced antagonism and a sense of "we're good" and "you are bad." Plus, why build a fence when you can deal with this problem in other ways?


David B. Rivkin, a constitutional lawyer with Baker & Hostetler, told CNSNews.com that Hoyer’s argument [ for govt run health care] was “silly,” adding that if the general welfare clause was that elastic, then nothing would be outside of Congress’ powers.

“Congressman Hoyer is wrong,” Rivkin said. “The notion that the general welfare language is a basis for a specific legislative exercise is all silly because if that’s true, because general welfare language is inherently limitless, then the federal government can do anything.


You have provided this quote before. Sorry, but it's just one guy's opinion, and I could paste up tons of opinions opposing his. I didn't ask Mr Rivkin what he thought.


The Commerce Clause does give the Congress the authority to promote commerce among the states. Since this a power enumerated in the Constitution, it is a right not reserved to the States.


Well, I can only challenge you here by referring to the situation as it is, according to SCOTUS and current national legislation which holds that insurance contracts don't count as commerce. So under constitutional law, since selling insurance DOESN'T currently "count" as commerce, you are rather out of luck. (And you must look to your personal expertise to find a way around that--can you demonstrate that insurance contracts ARE "commerce" where others have failed in this?) But I WILL say that if there was any chance of eliminating state protection in this area you would come up against the enormous power of the insurance lobby, not least because by becoming "commerce" (which they claim not to be, thus their immunity from the federal commerce clause) they would then be subject to anti-trust law (which I personally think would be a good thing, but I digress).

BUT, I think you find yourself in the unenviable position of both hating the health insurance lobby (in wishing for their classification as commerce) AND supporting it (in your objections to a public insurance option).

BTW (although I've said this before, with no acknowledgment), there is no proposal on the Hill for "government health care."
 pirateheaven

Joined: 5/11/2008
Msg: 58
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Posted: 11/5/2009 9:53:23 PM

BUT, I think you find yourself in the unenviable position of both hating the health insurance lobby (in wishing for their classification as commerce) AND supporting it (in your objections to a public insurance option).


Some background. States dictate what has to be in their statewide insurance policies. What they include does not meet the needs of everyone. People cannot opt out of certain services. For example, I don't need drug rehab services but have to pay for them. They essentially allow some companies a monopoly in their state. They do not allow out of state companies to sell their policies in state.

I learned this first hand. My insurance policy is from CA. I went to a drugstore in NY and they would not cover my prescription.

In any event, it is the States themselves who are restricting inter state commerce. Since the Constitution gives the power to promote interstate commerce, they can pass a law to change all of this.

Generally I am a big proponent of States rights which have been usurped by Congress. However in this case, Congress has the right to fix this. Originally States set up tarriffs between them and other states. This was part of the weakness of the Articles of Confederation that the founders sought to fix by adopting the Constitution.

This health care biz in other threads so I opting out of this subject in this thread.

Secession is a States right issue. We need to blow the dust off of the tenth Amendment and more than few states are in the process of doing just that.
 a bit nomadic

Joined: 6/14/2006
Msg: 59
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Posted: 11/5/2009 10:27:28 PM

Some background. States dictate what has to be in their statewide insurance policies. What they include does not meet the needs of everyone. People cannot opt out of certain services. For example, I don't need drug rehab services but have to pay for them. They essentially allow some companies a monopoly in their state. They do not allow out of state companies to sell their policies in state.


Yes, I actually got this. It's the nature of the beast. Insurance contracts, under current law, are NOT classified as "commerce" and so, thus, they aren't federally subject to regulation under the commerce clause. This is of enormous benefit to them.


In any event, it is the States themselves who are restricting inter state commerce. Since the Constitution gives the power to promote interstate commerce, they can pass a law to change all of this.

Generally I am a big proponent of States rights which have been usurped by Congress. However in this case, Congress has the right to fix this. Originally States set up tarriffs between them and other states. This was part of the weakness of the Articles of Confederation that the founders sought to fix by adopting the Constitution.


NO legislature (whether state or federal) can just, willy nilly, "change" things unless they have a constitutional basis to do so. Unless and until insurance companies become subject to federal regulation (when it comes to the application of the commerce clause, which doesn't presently apply) then they can't be regulated MUCH when it comes to the question of interstate commerce. What the federal government CAN do (and what "they" are currently TRYING to do) is set up some sort of national regulation paradigm which doesn't thus interfere with INTRA-state (as opposed to inter-state) competition, while also proposing a NATIONAL (public) option that can provide some competition in an EXTRA-state based way.

I suppose that congress COULD pass a law determining that the sale of insurance constituted commerce (which it currently, legally, does not) but if they did then it would (reasonably) be necessary to wait until this was upheld in SCOTUS before instituting a series of reforms pertaining to it (which could take any number of years). And even so, this would not really help with the current problem (even IF subject to inter-state competition, the insurance companies aren't going to BROADLY undersell each other), one better affected (in the first instance) through the introduction of a national public option and broad reforms FROM a national public level (beyond intra-state).

A president, when deciding whether or not to sign a law, SHOULD (and usually does) consider the constitutionality of that law before signing it--and for this he SHOULD look to SCOTUS decisions and current applicable statute law. In other words, NORMALLY a president WON'T sign into law a bill that directly violates existing case law (which a bill failing to recognize the non-commerce status of insurance companies would do). The last president ignored this at times (and we won't get into that because it really IS another thread, or many threads). But I doubt that Obama would want to be so promiscuous with his pen and thus risk the real possibility (especially considering the current make up of the Supreme Court). In other words, until and unless a SCOTUS case eliminates the insurance companies exemption from "non-commerce" status, it would be self-defeating to simply ENACT legislation either depriving them of that status or pretending that it doesn't exist.
 pirateheaven

Joined: 5/11/2008
Msg: 60
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Posted: 11/5/2009 10:59:38 PM
^^^^^^^^

This is my last word on this. Congress could remove the anti trust exemption from health insurance companies. That would start to reopen up competition of companies. The Republican Bill hr-3400 does have a mechanism to allow companies to sell across state lines. The newest version HR 3962 has the ability to sell their insurance in their home state and one other state. http://docs.house.gov/rules/health/111_hr3962_boehner_sub.pdf

The question really should be why didn't we secede years ago.
 a bit nomadic

Joined: 6/14/2006
Msg: 61
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Posted: 11/5/2009 11:29:42 PM
I would personally love to see an attack on the insurance-exemption via the commerce clause.

Interestingly, if it comes a great precedent will be the 2007 case over abortion, Gonzales v. Carhart, which ruled that the federal government could, by the Partial Birth Abortion Ban Act, regulate the medical profession, state by state, under the the Commerce Clause.

So perhaps conservatives will be hoisted on their own petards.

And if so....awesome!

:)
 Nickiow

Joined: 4/27/2009
Msg: 62
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Posted: 11/6/2009 2:16:02 AM
The Commerce Clause does give the Congress the authority to promote commerce among the states. Since this a power enumerated in the Constitution, it is a right not reserved to the States.


http://www.law.cornell.edu/supct/html/historics/USSC_CR_0022_0001_ZS.html

the relavent case law is contained here.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Argued: --- Decided:

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

The laws of New York granting to Robert R. Livingston and Robert Fulton the exclusive right of navigating the waters of that State with steamboats are in collision with the acts of Congress regulating the coasting trade, which, being made in pursuance of the Constitution, are supreme, and the State laws must yield to that supremacy, even though enacted in pursuance of powers acknowledged to remain in the States.

The power of regulating commerce extends to the regulation of navigation.

The power to regulate commerce extends to every species of commercial intercourse between the United States and foreign nations, and among the several States. It does not stop at the external boundary of a State.

But it does not extend to a commerce which is completely internal.

The power to regulate commerce is general, and has no limitations but such as are prescribed in the Constitution itself.

The power to regulate commerce, so far as it extends, is exclusively bested in Congress, and no part of it can be exercised by a State.

A license under the acts of Congress for regulating the coasting trade gives a permission to carry on that trade.

State inspection laws, health laws, and laws for regulating the internal commerce of a State, and those which respect turnpike roads, ferries, &c. are not within the power granted to Congress.

The license is not merely intended to confer the national character.

The power of regulating commerce extends to navigation carried on by vessels exclusively employed in transporting passengers.

The power of regulating commerce extends to vessels propelled by steam or fire as well as to those navigated by the instrumentality of wind and sails.

Syllabus
http://www.constitution.org/ussc/022-001.htm
 Nickiow

Joined: 4/27/2009
Msg: 63
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Posted: 11/6/2009 3:02:42 AM

Govt Health care is unconstitutional period.


You of course have SCOTUS telling us this i presume?.
 trailviews

Joined: 8/14/2006
Msg: 64
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Posted: 11/6/2009 3:24:03 AM

I will say the Republicans and Dems could have passed laws to lift the laws that prevent people from buying insurance across state lines.

Care to name this supposed law that keeps insurance companies from selling across state lines?

What you're really talking about is taking away states' rights to regulate health insurance.
 pirateheaven

Joined: 5/11/2008
Msg: 65
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Posted: 11/6/2009 2:10:21 PM
There is more than one thread on health care. Please post your comments there. We took a long detour including myself.

Tenth amendment news can be found here

http://www.tenthamendmentcenter.com/2009/02/09/state-sovereignty-movement-quietly-growing/

http://www.tenthamendmentcenter.com/tenth-amendment-talking-points/

The Ninth Amendment sates:

“ The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people.
 CountIbli

Joined: 6/1/2005
Msg: 66
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Is It Time to Secede Yet?
Posted: 11/6/2009 2:53:44 PM


Or you could look at it another way, and simply heavily penalize those who hire them? They come because there is a market for their labor. How about attacking the problem at its source??


Nuke Mexico?





Govt Health care is unconstitutional period.


Prove it. Period.


The 10th Amendment. Period.



While I'm not enough of a constitutional scholar to really address this (and I suspect that neither are you), I wonder at this from an admitted secessionist. Hmmmm.... I can just imagine the "states rights" uproar if Washington began REALLY assaulting state privilege when it comes to internal matters such as this.


How is purchasing goods and services across state lines internal? In fact the Constitution explicitely gives Congress the power to regulate interstate commerce.
 Dasein2

Joined: 7/31/2009
Msg: 67
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Posted: 11/6/2009 3:28:35 PM

I beg to differ. I refer you to Federalist 41.


You can read the Federalist 'till the cows come home but it's not the law. As Nickiow pointed out above the USSC applies the Commerce Clause and the Dormant Commerce Clause [which isn't even in the Constitution! Yea, I was being tricky before] to expand the powers of the Legislature very liberally and has applied it to everything from Navigation, Automobiles, Guns, and even to curtail Segregation. If the issue came before the USSC I have no doubt that they would uphold Congress's power to regulate Health Care under the Commerce Clause.


The 10th Amendment. Period.


Wrong. See above paragraph and see the 9th Amendment, which the founding fathers are saying in essence, 'even if we forgot to put it in, if the people demand it, they get it'.


How is purchasing goods and services across state lines internal? In fact the Constitution explicitely gives Congress the power to regulate interstate commerce.


The USSC found in one case involving the legalization of marijuana in California that the Commerce Clause was impuned because marijuana in California might cross state lines. Thus, Congress had the right to regulate it under the Commerce Clause.
 mungojoe

Joined: 11/15/2006
Msg: 68
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Posted: 11/6/2009 6:38:55 PM

I frankly want Obama succeed at lowering taxes, lowering health care insurance costs, helping to create jobs, reducing the govt debt and winning the wars. I just don't think he is accomplishing any of those things.

That is the conclusion after a mere 10 months in office...? And conservatives accuse liberals of thinking of Obama as a "messiah" and "infallible miracle worker"... Yet, from this comment it seems as though that is projection (of the Freudian kind)... Seems to me that anyone who expects Obama to have accomplished all that by now, rather than suspending judgement until the policies have had time to achieve full effect, are the ones thinking that he is a "messiah" and "infallible miracle worker"...

Revolution was new word back then,it ment what had occured in France in its revolution and the Uk in its 1688 revolution and does not require any force to enact, and refers to the transfer of political power/authority by lawfull means from one section of society to anotherm rather than say the revolution ofa planet to its sun.


This is the silliest objection I have ever seen posted on these forums. Obviously, the word is being used in the same sense as "American Revolutionary War". The statement quoted was obviously NOT written in the 1600 or 1700's, it was written THIS century and since the word "revolution" is NOT used in the Declaration of Independence obviously its use in this sentence is in the context of its 21st century meaning, of "rebellion".

As far as secession. I think we should just give CA and the blue states to Canada. The people would be much happier there and it would save them the trouble of turning the US into Canada.

Not going to happen... The majority of Americans, even liberal Americans, could not bring themselves to adopt the necessary world-view to function under the Canadian system...


Freedom, or more properly, Liberty, IS a natural right... that's why it is guaranteed in the Constitution... secession is NOT... that is why it is NOT guaranteed in the Constitution.


Incorrect, the constition gave proprerty rights in people to slave owners, so your comment about liberty is factually incorrect as it gave ownership of people the highest protection in law possible. secesion is an inherent atribute of a sovrein body, and in the coinstition it resides in where the sovreign body exists, that is the states who created a Union, a supremcay caluse otherwise all states being equal could deny the others there sovreign will with there own, so that while in that Union, its laws were of paramount authority, the Union is nota sovreign body, if it was the suprmacy clause would not be required.

Sorry, but the Constitution DOES guarantee liberty... what the above statement conveniently ignores is the fact that the Constitution's guarantee of liberty applies to U.S. citizens, and slaves, at the time, were not considered citizens and therefore not afforded the same level of protection as citizens... this is reflected in the "3/5ths compromise" which came about as a result of the dispute over the slave states wanting to count slaves for the purpose of apportionment but not wanting them to vote (which would have made them citizens and given them the protections of the Constitution, and thereby, liberty)...

Further, secession is NOT an inherent right of a sovereign body... secession is a legal concept under positive law... not a concept under natural law (which it would have to be to be an inherent right of a sovereign body)... the above is confusing secession (positive law) with rebellion/revolution (natural law)... secession occurs under mutual consent of the group wishing to secede and the gov't from which they are seceding... where consent (either active or de facto) of the existing gov't is not forthcoming then it becomes rebellion/revolution


Third... the Constitution does not have to deny secession to the states... secession is not a "power" in the context you are usng it and it is not a natural right...



Yes it is...

NO it isn't... as explained above... secession is a matter of positive law, not natural law... again, this confuses secession with rebellion/revolution...

Just as the legal basis of Chase in Texas V White rests and refers to the pre amble of the Constition

The preamble (and Articles of Confederation) were NOT the basis of the decision... they were cited as a determination of the intent behind the constitution and union... The Constitution itself and the union it created, as characterized by expressed intent, was the basis for the decision...

Resolved, That in adoption of the Federal Constition, the States adopting acted severally as free and independednt sovrfeignties, delegating a portion of there powers to be excercised by the Federal government for the increased security of each against dangers, domsetic and forgien and that any intermeddeling by any of the states or any combination of their citizens with the domestic instituition of the others on any pretext whatsocver, political, moral, or religouse witha view to disturbing the states so interfered with, endangers there peaceand tranquility, objects for which the Union was formed, and the necessaary consequence tends to weaken and destroy the Union itself.

Perhaps you would care to provide a link to this...? Or is this just something that was lifted from a "the north was wrong, the south shall rise again" forum posting somewhere...? And, when a link is provided, perhaps an explanation of how a NON-BINDING resolution purported to be from the Senate (but no indication of any action or House consideration) is relevant...

But the most telling example of your lie about madison is the following from Madison.

That acts of congress in violition of the constition are absolutly void is an untenable posistion. It does not however consist with with respect and forbearence due from any confederate state towards the general government to fly in open resistance upon any infraction of the constition. the mode and energy of the injustice should always conform to the nature of the voilition, the intention of its authors and teh danger of dealy. but in the case of immediate and palpable infratcions of the constition, affecting the sovreignty of the states and the liberties of the people, it is not only the right, but the duty of the state to interpose itself for the protection of the people, ina manner best calculated to secure that end. when emergencys occur that are ither beyond the reach of judicial tribunals or to pressing to admit delay incident to their forms, states have no common umpire, must be their own judges and execute there own descicions. it will thus be proper for the several states to await the ultimate disposal of the obnoxouse measure recomended by the Sec of War, or pending before before congress, and so to use there power acording to the charcters these measure s shall finaly asume, as effectivly to protect themere own sovreignty and the rights and liberties of there citizens.

MY lie...? Here are the actual words Madison wrote to Webster on this matter... NOWHERE in that letter are the words quoted above... but they do say EXACTLY what I said they did!

In fact he SPECIFICALLY states this about unilateral ("at will") secession "...

The former [the claim to secede at will] answers itself, being a violation, without cause, of a faith solemnly pledged.

And this...

Webster would threaten to secede, or rather take his state into secesion, over the militai acts of 1814.

Is utter nonsense and a complete falsehood... Webster NEVER threatened to secede... Webster utterly denounced the radical secessionists and did so in his speech to the Washington Benevolent Society regarding the war of 1812...

Webster went from being an anto secionist to being a proponent and user of secesion for the rest of his life arfter consulting with Madison, debate with Hayne and Calhoun in congress.

This too is utter claptrap... Webster was NEVER a secessionist... in even a small degree... before or after the Civil War... Here is a further thought of his made several years after the "Nullification Crisis"

Secession! Peaceable secession! Sir, your eyes and mine are never destined to see that miracle. The dismemberment of this vast country without convulsion! ... There can be no such thing as a peaceable secession. Peaceable secession is an utter impossibility...We could not separate the states by any such line if we were to draw it...
Daniel Webster (March 7, 1850 A Plea for Harmony and Peace)

And

Is the USSC a secesionst cabal?. Ware V Hamilton 1798


There is NO such SCOTUS case... Just more nonsense...

Lastly Texas V White allowed that if all states agreed that secesion was ok, then it was ok, but since Texas V White was overturned on appeal

Texas v. White was not, in its whole, overturned... the case in Texas v. White covered more than one issue... the first being lawful title to the bonds in question... second, authority to dispense with the bonds... and third, the ability to to limit the negotiability of the bonds through legislation... the only portion of Texas v. White which was overturned in Morgan v. U.S. was the narrow issue of limiting negotiability by legislation... not the entire case... to wit (from the decision of the court in Morgan v. U.S.)

"The ruling in Texas v. White, 7 Wall. 700, that the Legislature of Texas, while the state was owner of the bonds there in suit, could limit their negotiability by an act of legislation, with notice of which all subsequent purchasers were charged, although the bonds on their face were payable to bearer, overruled."

The ruling in Morgan v. U.S. spoke ONLY to the issue of whether redemption of bonds could be refused to the innocent bearer, having purchased the bonds in good faith, by act of legislation... no other element of Texas v. White was ruled upon or overturned... to state otherwise is to completely ignore the fact that specific elements of a ruling can be overturned without overturning any other elements or vacating the decision in its entirety.


it was only case law for a couple of years during reconstruction and is now only of historical intrest as it has no weight in law

Sorry dude... Texas v. White is ESTABLISHED case law in ALL elements excepting that narrow issue noted above...

Incorrect, secesion is the opoiste of accede, one can secede from a legal compact just as one can acede to it


Let's go with the "secede is the opposite of accede" argument... How can one unilateraly secede from a union to which one cannot unilateraly accede...? NO state can join the Union by unilateral accession, voluntary or not... accession to the Union REQUIRES the consent of the existing states, accession is NOT a right, legal or natural, it is a privilege... one must apply to join... as such, if secession is its opposite then one cannot unilateraly secede... that too would also REQUIRE the consent of those same existing states, it is not a right, legal or natural... one must apply to secede (or simply emigrate)... basic logic dictates that, if an act of secession is the opposite of an act of accession then secession MUST occur in the equivalent manner as the accession which preceded it unless specifically otherwise granted.

And... interestingly... that is exactly the point made in Texas v. White...

And... as a final note... I can't help but notice that much of the posts on this matter are identical, in form, word and error, to the posts of the user "Hanny" who was banned from the civilwartalk forum...


I think article clears up misconception that the General Welfare Clause gives congress to do just about anything including meddling in heath care insurance.

Except... let's not forget that this clause is not referred to as simply the "taxing clause"... it is referred to as the "taxing and spending clause" because it also allows the gov't to SPEND money on defense and general welfare...

The view cited above view is NOT the one held to by the courts... nor, generally, is the "Madisonian" view... the vast bulk of case law takes the "Hamiltonian" view... that spending is an enumerated power which Congress may exercise to benefit the general welfare... such as, to assist national needs in agriculture or education, provided that the spending is general in nature and does not favor any specific section of the country over any other...

The standing Supreme Court interpretation of this clause is outlined in U.S. v. Butler...

[T]he [General Welfare] clause confers a power separate and distinct from those later enumerated, is not restricted in meaning by the grant of them, and Congress consequently has a substantive power to tax and to appropriate, limited only by the requirement that it shall be exercised to provide for the general welfare of the United States. … It results that the power of Congress to authorize expenditure of public moneys for public purposes is not limited by the direct grants of legislative power found in the Constitution. … But the adoption of the broader construction leaves the power to spend subject to limitations. … [T]he powers of taxation and appropriation extend only to matters of national, as distinguished from local, welfare.

The enumerated powers do not include spending related to education... or building roads... or dams... or Medicare... or Social Security... or any of the myriad other infrastructure-related spending... and yet this is generally accepted as necessary for the general welfare of the nation and its people and a legitimate "power" of Congress under the General Welfare clause... health-care spending is as much a matter of "general welfare" as roads, education, dams, social security... or medicare (which is, incidentaly, health-care)... All of the current health reform proposals involve nothing more than spending of revenues for the promotion of the general welfare of the nation... there is no "nationalization of medical services"... only spending to assist individuals in the acquisition of health services...

Secession is a States right issue.

No it is not... as mentioned above... acceding to the Union requires the consent of the existing states... NO-ONE can unilateraly accede to the Union... by the same token... once accession is accepted a compact has been entered into and secession requires the same consent... THAT is the established U.S. law on the matter... unless one chooses open rebellion/revolution, as a matter of natural right, in which case one must succeed or face the often unpleasant consequences.
 CountIbli

Joined: 6/1/2005
Msg: 69
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History
Is It Time to Secede Yet?
Posted: 11/7/2009 1:19:32 AM


Wrong. See above paragraph and see the 9th Amendment, which the founding fathers are saying in essence, 'even if we forgot to put it in, if the people demand it, they get it'.


No, that's not what the 9th says.

"The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people."

All this says is that people have rights that are not enumerated in the Constitution.



The USSC found in one case involving the legalization of marijuana in California that the Commerce Clause was impuned because marijuana in California might cross state lines. Thus, Congress had the right to regulate it under the Commerce Clause.


"To regulate Commerce with foreign Nations, and among the several States, and with the Indian Tribes;"

Congress has the power to regulate marijuana as part of commerce between states, but has no power to regulate marijuana use within a state or use for non-commercial purposes among the states. Of course I'm never surprised when the SC misinterprets the Constitution to give more power to the federal government.
 mungojoe

Joined: 11/15/2006
Msg: 70
view profile
History
Is It Time to Secede Yet?
Posted: 11/7/2009 11:30:54 AM


Texas v. White was not, in its whole, overturned... the case in Texas v. White covered more than one issue... the first being lawful title to the bonds in question... second, authority to dispense with the bonds... and third, the ability to to limit the negotiability of the bonds through legislation... the only portion of Texas v. White which was overturned in Morgan v. U.S. was the narrow issue of limiting negotiability by legislation... not the entire case... to wit (from the decision of the court in Morgan v. U.S.)



Which is the entire point at contention, so asked and answered. You do noty wish to argue that SCOTS dicat was that if all teh states said secesion was ok, then it was ok,you must not want to admit that after the 14th amndemnt it can only rule that way, and not as before in 1860 when all the citizens in the americas were only citizens of the sperarte states, and as such the right of secesion had moved from the sttes to excecise it seperatly for its people, to where it now resides in teh agregate for all the states. You do not wish to argue this because of your other statmenmts not boubt and hope im not payimng attention to your inability to mainatian a cohernt argument of who is sovreign and what tht means.

There is no answer to it... the case, in its entirety was not overturned... this does NOTHING to answer...

There is a gross misunderstanding of reality here and in the statement which followed...

Sorry, is the correct term, dicta is not precendtial and forms no case law, or by your own argument case law is that if all states agree secesion is constitional, since history shows that states uniltaeraly seceded from the UK in 1688, 1774-6, from the AOC and again in the WBTS, ist fair to say, millions of citizes understood the oposite to be the case.

You are attempting to say that because the colonies rebelled from Britain by consensus that this somehow means that they have given consent to any future secession by any one (or group) of states... this is completely illogical... this in no way determines that they have given consent in perpetuity to unilateral secession... this could not be a more gross distortion if it were intended to be... each instance of secession is a separate case and requires separate consent... the consent to withdraw, and rebel if agreement is not forthcoming, in one instance does NOT constitute consent to all future such actions... in any way... to argue it does is utter bullshit...

Only on what Texas V white was brought on, the comment of the judge were meerly dicta and not part of the rulling,nor was secesion part of the rulling as that part was overturned, making even the dicat irelavent.

Texas v. White IS established case law in the US... ALL courts and law in the US agree with this... your disageement does not, IN ANY WAY, dispute or negate that... the argument is simply one of "I think otherwise so it must be otherwise"... such an opinion in no way negates the reality of it as established case law...


Let's go with the "secede is the opposite of accede" argument... How can one unilateraly secede from a union to which one cannot unilateraly accede...? NO state can join the Union by unilateral accession, voluntary or not... accession to the Union REQUIRES the consent of the existing states, accession is NOT a right, legal or natural, it is a privilege... one must apply to join... as such, if secession is its opposite then one cannot unilateraly secede... that too would also REQUIRE the consent of those same existing states, it is not a right, legal or natural... one must apply to secede (or simply emigrate)... basic logic dictates that, if an act of secession is the opposite of an act of accession then secession MUST occur in the equivalent manner as the accession which preceded it unless specifically otherwise granted.




Because the Union required only 9 states to join to make it come into effect, each seperate stae come into the Union by state wide convention for that purpose, everything in law is uncreated in the same manner it is created. Law works that way.

This too is utter bullshit... the number of states consenting to the original Union in NO WAY determines the number of states required to consent in future instances... this is an invention of your own mind, not a fact... consent must be based on the number of states represented at the time of secession not the number of original ratifiers...

Even if it were true, which it isn't, there were not nine states seceding which formed part of the original ratifiers, there were only 4... nor were there nine original ratifiers which were willing to consent to the secession... further, it doesn't account for the conditions of admission which existed at the time of admission for the majority of the states attempting to secede... The states attempting to secede would not have met the necesary conditions even by your unsupportable argument...

Congress May 20 1860 first resolution of the 7 forwarded for voting, by J Davis of Miss. can be read in A Stephens a constional view of the late war beteeen the states, and a J R garhem who won in canada the right of condition secesion using congresese votes on where sovreringty resides, therby showing in court where finadamental law rests, A Constitional history of secesion.

Voted for Ca, indiana,Minn,Oregon, penn, all the southern states, Del and NJ abstained, from the vote.



Relavence is how the sentaors voted on there understanding on the laws they lived under and created, as they pertained to state soverignty, and by extension the right to secede, something every state in teh Union had excercised up to that point in time.

This still does not explain anything about how a NON-BINDING resolution purported to be from ONE of the two chambers has any relevance to the issue.

Webster lived in Mass, whose constition was amdeded in 1780 to include, this, has this to say.

The people alone have the the inalianble and incontravertable and indefeasable right to insittute government, and to reform, alter or toataly change the same when their protection saftey and propserity require it.

Webster voted to refuse to provide militai and hsisstate secedded from doing so, and Hartford was done with Websters help and vote.


This still does nothing to establish any point of Webster being an ardent secessionist... in any way other than an "Alice in Wonderland" manner where "words mean exactly what I choose them to mean..."

The entire argument presented reminds me of the nonsense that "tax protesters" try to foist off by cherry-picking quotes, minor and inapplicable elements of court rulings, invalid Constitutional interpretations and making "legal" arguments which carry NO weight and have NO basis in law... This is the same "it must be true because this is how I interpret it and facts to the contrary are not facts because they disagree with my point of view" argument made in that case.
 pirateheaven

Joined: 5/11/2008
Msg: 71
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History
Is It Time to Secede Yet?
Posted: 11/7/2009 12:02:31 PM
http://www.endusmilitarism.org/secessionlegality.html

Interesting tidbit

When they originally ratified the U.S. Constitution, at least three states – New York, Virginia, and Rhode Island - included clauses asserting the right to secede from the Union at a future time. Of the three states, the ratifications by New York and Virginia were considered necessary for the Union to have a chance to succeed.

..... Virginia’s ratification (with a vote of 89 to 79) came on June 25, 1788 and New York’s (with a vote of 30 to 27) on July 26, 1788. Even though the ratifications by Virginia and New York occurred after the ratification of the Constitution by the necessary ninth state, New Hampshire, on June 21, 1788, they were nevertheless still viewed as crucial. When the ratifications of Virginia and New York finally occurred, confidence was high that the new nation would at least have a fighting chance to succeed.

Rhode Island’s clause asserting its right to secede is often overlooked due to its being the last of the original thirteen states to ratify. Rhode Island’s first attempt to ratify the Constitution, by referendum, had failed on March 4, 1988. The state finally ratified the Constitution (with a vote of 34 to 32) on May 29, 1790. This was nearly two years after the ratifications by New Hampshire, Virginia, and New York, after the swearing in of George Washington as President ..............

Some important facts should be pointed out.

First, the ratifications of the Constitution by New York, Virginia, and Rhode Island were not given conditionally upon those states being granted the right to secede by the other states. Had that been the case, the ratifications would have been invalid. Ratifications of the Constitution had to be unconditional. Those who voted to ratify the Constitution in New York, Virginia, and Rhode Island simply put into writing a right they thought naturally belonged to their respective states. The states were voluntarily joining the Union, and most people believed the same principles toward self-governance that gave states the right to join the Union also gave states the right to withdraw from the Union.

Second, the ratifications of Virginia, New York, and Rhode Island were unanimously accepted as valid. Those states’ claims to the right of secession was understood and agreed to by the other ratifiers, including George Washington who presided over the Constitutional Convention and served as a delegate from Virginia.

Third, many lawyers believe that the acceptance of these three ratifications (New York, Virginia, and Rhode Island) as valid guarantees all states the right to secede. This conclusion is based on the principle that whatever rights are held by some states must be held by all states. [Exceptional rights have been granted to some states in order to encourage them to join the Union. But those special rights were understood by all states already in the union at the time the states granted special rights were accepted.]
 mungojoe

Joined: 11/15/2006
Msg: 72
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History
Is It Time to Secede Yet?
Posted: 11/7/2009 1:14:33 PM
..... Virginia’s ratification (with a vote of 89 to 79) came on June 25, 1788 and New York’s (with a vote of 30 to 27) on July 26, 1788. Even though the ratifications by Virginia and New York occurred after the ratification of the Constitution by the necessary ninth state, New Hampshire, on June 21, 1788, they were nevertheless still viewed as crucial. When the ratifications of Virginia and New York finally occurred, confidence was high that the new nation would at least have a fighting chance to succeed.

This consideration of necessity was based largely on the geographic positioning of New York and Virginia (thier absence would have split the new nation into 3 discontiguous parts, a likely untenable situation for the new nation) as well as thier economic position among the colonies and thier populations (almost half of the new nation)

First, the ratifications of the Constitution by New York, Virginia, and Rhode Island were not given conditionally upon those states being granted the right to secede by the other states. Had that been the case, the ratifications would have been invalid. Ratifications of the Constitution had to be unconditional.

Which is a central point in the matter... the Articles of Confederation SPECIFICALLY denied unilateral secession and, by extension of intent, neither does the Constitution (confirmed in Texas v. White, considered established case law in the US)... Accession under the knowledge that unilateral secession was impermissable and could not be accepted as a condition renders any statement regarding a condition of right to secede unilateraly void and legally unenforceable... this 'converts' the condition to little more than an acknowledgement of a natural right to rebel which is also subsumed in the Constitution (a subsumption confirmed in Texas v. White)... this subsumption is clearly stated in this section:

Those who voted to ratify the Constitution in New York, Virginia, and Rhode Island simply put into writing a right they thought naturally belonged to their respective states.

but it relates to the natural right of right of rebellion not unilateral (at will) secession.

The states were voluntarily joining the Union, and most people believed the same principles toward self-governance that gave states the right to join the Union also gave states the right to withdraw from the Union.

Second, the ratifications of Virginia, New York, and Rhode Island were unanimously accepted as valid. Those states’ claims to the right of secession was understood and agreed to by the other ratifiers, including George Washington who presided over the Constitutional Convention and served as a delegate from Virginia.

Third, many lawyers believe that the acceptance of these three ratifications (New York, Virginia, and Rhode Island) as valid guarantees all states the right to secede. This conclusion is based on the principle that whatever rights are held by some states must be held by all states.

Again... there are two layers to this which are being confounded... the first is the natural right of right to rebellion, a right which cannot be removed but requires the ability to enforce by either one's own action or assistance of the gov't... the second is a legal right to secede by the same mechanism by which accession occurs, the Constitutional mechanism of admitting new states, which requires consent of all parties (both the party acceding and a sufficient number of the parties being acceded to).

The very argument posted confirms the decision of Texas v. White (which itself merely confirms the actual state of affairs)... there are two SEPARATE mechanisms by which a state may secede... with the active consent of the Union (or de facto consent, where the Union does not give consent but makes no effort to stop the secession)... or... in the absence of active or de facto consent, by force of arms.
 Nickiow

Joined: 4/27/2009
Msg: 73
view profile
History
Is It Time to Secede Yet?
Posted: 11/10/2009 3:17:01 AM
You are attempting to say that because the colonies rebelled from Britain by consensus that this somehow means that they have given consent to any future secession by any one (or group) of states... this is completely illogical... this in no way determines that they have given consent in perpetuity to unilateral secession... this could not be a more gross distortion if it were intended to be... each instance of secession is a separate case and requires separate consent... the consent to withdraw, and rebel if agreement is not forthcoming, in one instance does NOT constitute consent to all future such actions... in any way... to argue it does is utter bullshit...


No, im pointing out in UK contitional law the colonies seceded as per Uk constitional law allowed them to do so, and then the crown decided it was above the law, which as the soveriegn it is allowed to do, and denied them that right. Itsa fact of law, and logic is rested on facts, the UK crown was where sovreignty rested, the right of secesion is allowed in the UK constition, Sovreignty passed in the TOP to the 13 seperate Coloniees who now posseed it. Secesion is a unlitareral action, because if it requires others consent, the body attempting it is not a sovereign body.

Is law/history no longer taught where you live?.

Logic dictates that when the UK crown passed sovreignty to the 13 seperate former colonines that the right of secesion passed to them as this is now the location of sovriegnty.

Not B/S but fact, fact is law and historical document.



Texas v. White IS established case law in the US... ALL courts and law in the US agree with this... your disageement does not, IN ANY WAY, dispute or negate that... the argument is simply one of "I think otherwise so it must be otherwise"... such an opinion in no way negates the reality of it as established case law...


Case laW yes, but not on secesion as secesion is not whats on the court documents. Acoroding to you, when a judge hears a murder case and tells us that xmas falls on easter, that now easter falls in Dec and we should really get with his programe.


This too is utter bullshit... the number of states consenting to the original Union in NO WAY determines the number of states required to consent in future instances... this is an invention of your own mind, not a fact... consent must be based on the number of states represented at the time of secession not the number of original ratifiers...


Nope not B/S you entered a false posistion that the members agreement to a state entry into the Union is how to understand sovreignty and secesion, Webster who argued in Congress in 1830 that no state had acceded to the constition, and that the word acceded is an unconstional one, as the opoiste is to secede and therfore since no state had aceded it could not secede. Hayne showed him SC had acceded, calhoun then showed him that by Webster own understanding of law, secesion follws by law and logic.

Only Soverigns can enter into compact, WEerbster argued and lost that the constition was a compact, a comnpact of wills is where sovreigns have nho common umpire, and comes from Henry VIII whose sogreignh will was higher than all the laws of the land, prima genter and common law in UK provided males succede the monarch, Henry overode all that with his comapct of will as sovreign, and the Uk got a queen instead.

I suggest you look at legal maxims, everything is destroyed in the nsame manner it is created, and Justice Marshal at the VA deabtes explaing this to VA convention that VA secesion is gaurented to it and how to do it.

Ive already pointed out that unilateral secesion is how international law works, given you example of how then USDA did so with France overa century ago.


Even if it were true, which it isn't, there were not nine states seceding which formed part of the original ratifiers, there were only 4... nor were there nine original ratifiers which were willing to consent to the secession... further, it doesn't account for the conditions of admission which existed at the time of admission for the majority of the states attempting to secede... The states attempting to secede would not have met the necesary conditions even by your unsupportable argument...


Actaully Madison is intirly correct, that you disagree with him is of no surprise, and it inserted into the constition as Article 7, and exapliedn what it ment, Hamiltion agreed with him and you disagree with bolth of them



This still does not explain anything about how a NON-BINDING resolution purported to be from ONE of the two chambers has any relevance to the issue.


Asked and answerd.


This still does nothing to establish any point of Webster being an ardent secessionist... in any way other than an "Alice in Wonderland" manner where "words mean exactly what I choose them to mean..."


If you knew that Webster spent 10 years touring the north telling them that if they continued to press on slavery, the south was constitional correct to secede. You would know all about using words incorrectly, pre 1830 webster held that thewre was no stste sovreignty outside of being in the Union, that no state had aceeded to the Union and that the Union was nota compacdt of equal sovreign states, after losing in congres to Hayne calhound and crespondence with Madison, he argued from Calhoun and Hayne secesion is permsiable position untill hgis death, now refered to the Union as a compact.





This consideration of necessity was based largely on the geographic positioning of New York and Virginia (thier absence would have split the new nation into 3 discontiguous parts, a likely untenable situation for the new nation) as well as thier economic position among the colonies and thier populations (almost half of the new nation)

Incorrect the debates are avalible online and the provision was inserted to provide the right of sece
sion, as explained by Justcie Pendleton just Marshal ande Madison in va for instance.



Which is a central point in the matter... the Articles of Confederation SPECIFICALLY denied unilateral secession and, by extension of intent, neither does the Constitution (confirmed in Texas v. White, considered established case law in the US)... Accession under the knowledge that unilateral secession was impermissable and could not be accepted as a condition renders any statement regarding a condition of right to secede unilateraly void and legally unenforceable... this 'converts' the condition to little more than an acknowledgement of a natural right to rebel which is also subsumed in the Constitution (a subsumption confirmed in Texas v. White)... this subsumption is clearly stated in this section:


Problem is the AOC was ended by unilateral secesion, every state left seperatly and
peawcfully which was why the AOC perpetual and indivisable portion was droped from the next constition, as it was made clear that the right power and authority to make and unmake contitions existed with the seperate state sovreigntys, in the AOC it was expreessed by the state legislature, and in the Constition, it was palced where it existed, in the people of teh states, who as in RI case had been denied the right to express there will becaused teh legislature refused to call an elction or debate on the sttes joining the new proposed Union. In this way, the contition become more perfect.



but it relates to the natural right of right of rebellion not unilateral (at will) secession.


No it refers to the constional protected right to secede peacfully, protected by a styate militia against a small federal army, when the government wishes to practice tyranny instead of law, anyone can use force, but the constition aolows the mechanism of peacfull secesion without such use of force but provides the inability of the federal government to over match the state militia with force.


Again... there are two layers to this which are being confounded... the first is the natural right of right to rebellion, a right which cannot be removed but requires the ability to enforce by either one's own action or assistance of the gov't... the second is a legal right to secede by the same mechanism by which accession occurs, the Constitutional mechanism of admitting new states, which requires consent of all parties (both the party acceding and a sufficient number of the parties being acceded to).


The right to fight to protect ones rights is protected, but the right to peacfully do is denied?, what a strange and unlegal minded viwpoint.

Only a sovreign body can enter into the Union compact, the Union came into being when 9 of the 13 members ratification created it, as madison made clear, if the others did not, or not enough to reach 9 did, the pososistion of the others was they were seperate sovreign bodys.
 mungojoe

Joined: 11/15/2006
Msg: 74
view profile
History
Is It Time to Secede Yet?
Posted: 11/10/2009 2:34:25 PM
No, im pointing out in UK contitional law the colonies seceded as per Uk constitional law allowed them to do so, and then the crown decided it was above the law, which as the soveriegn it is allowed to do, and denied them that right. Itsa fact of law, and logic is rested on facts, the UK crown was where sovreignty rested, the right of secesion is allowed in the UK constition, Sovreignty passed in the TOP to the 13 seperate Coloniees who now posseed it. Secesion is a unlitareral action, because if it requires others consent, the body attempting it is not a sovereign body.
....
Logic dictates that when the UK crown passed sovreignty to the 13 seperate former colonines that the right of secesion passed to them as this is now the location of sovriegnty.

No... once the UK ceased to maintiain any political or legal control over the colonies any element of UK "consititutional" law ceased to have any application other than that which the new nation SPECIFICALLY chose to adopt for themselves in law... beyond that, UK law ceased to be binding otherwise, by that argument, the colonies would have been legally bound to a constitutional monarchy rather than a constitutional republic... can't 'pick and choose' the argument in that way...

Case laW yes, but not on secesion as secesion is not whats on the court documents.

Sorry, but the constitutionality of unilateral (at will) secession was an element decided in Texas v. White...

I refer you to the most recent citation of Texas v. White, contained in the ruling of Kohlhaas v. State, 2006...

B. Secession Is Clearly Unconstitutional.
Kohlhaas argues that the appropriate time to review the
constitutionality of 03INDP is after its enactment rather than
before its certification, since there is no controlling authority
clearly establishing its unconstitutionality. The crux of his
argument is that neither the Alaska Constitution nor the United
States Constitution contains provisions expressly prohibiting
secession. The state argues that 03INDP is clearly
unconstitutional under Supreme Court decisions addressing
secession. We agree with the state that secession is clearly
unconstitutional.

Shortly after the Civil War, the Supreme Court
considered whether the Confederate Texas legislature had the
power to pass legislation resulting in the sale of bonds that the
federal government had issued to Texas on its admission to the
Union in 1845. The bonds in Texas v. White,19 issued by the
United States before the Civil War, were not payable without the
Texas governors signature. During the war, the Confederate Texas
legislature repealed the signature requirement and sold the
bonds. After the war, the Supreme Court held that the sales were
invalid since the Confederate legislation was void, having been
enacted for the unlawful purpose of funding treason.20 The
nullity of the Confederate legislation is essential to the
holding.21
Kohlhaas maintains that Texas v. White contains highly
suspect reasoning because it fails to discuss the Ninth and
Tenth Amendments. He argues that because the Constitution is
otherwise silent on secession, secession is one of the rights
reserved by those amendments. The decision quotes the Tenth
Amendment almost exactly and discusses at great length the rights
of the states and the people within the Union:
Under the Constitution, though the powers of
the States were much restricted, still, all
powers not delegated to the United States,
nor prohibited to the States, are reserved to
the States respectively, or to the people. .
. . [T]he people of each State compose a
State, having its own government, and endowed
with all the functions essential to separate
and independent existence[;] . . . without
the States in union, there could be no such
political body as the United States. Not
only, therefore, can there be no loss of
separate and independent autonomy to the
States, through their union under the
Constitution, but it may be not unreasonably
said that the preservation of the States, and
the maintenance of their governments, are as
much within the design and care of the
Constitution as the preservation of the Union
and the maintenance of the National
government. The Constitution, in all its
provisions, looks to an indestructible Union,
composed of indestructible States. When,
therefore, Texas became one of the United
States, she entered into an indissoluble
relation. All the obligations of perpetual
union, and all the guaranties of republican
government in the Union, attached at once to
the State. The act which consummated her
admission into the Union was something more
than a compact; it was the incorporation of a
new member into the political body. And it
was final. The union between Texas and the
other States was as complete, as perpetual,
and as indissoluble as the union between the
original States. There was no place for
reconsideration, or revocation, except
through revolution, or through consent of the
States.[22]

Furthermore, the Supreme Court has interpreted the Tenth
Amendment in a manner contrary to the interpretation Kohlhaas
urges. In considering whether states could impose term limits on
their federal legislators, the Court held that the Amendment
could only reserve that which existed before.23 Thus The states
can exercise no powers whatsoever, which exclusively spring out
of the existence of the national government . . . . No state can
say, that it has reserved, what it never possessed. 24 Like
representation in Congress, secession from the Union springs from
joinder to the Union. No state possessed a right to secede
before admission, and so no state would retain such a right under
the Tenth Amendment.
Kohlhaas also suggests that Texas v. White should not
be taken as black letter law since the decision is tainted by the
context, emotions, and political situation immediately following
the Civil War, and has not been cited except as dicta by modern
cases. This argument not only trivializes the impact of the
Civil War on the Nation but also ignores a plenitude of Supreme
Court cases holding as completely null the purported acts of
secession by other Confederate states.25 Unsurprisingly, the
Supreme Court has had little occasion since Reconstruction to
address the legality of secession. In 2004 the Supreme Court
observed that inclusion of the word indivisible in the Pledge of
Allegiance was significant because the question whether a State
could secede from the Union had been intensely debated and was
unresolved prior to the Civil War.26
Even though secession is not explicitly addressed in
the United States or Alaska Constitutions, it is clearly
unconstitutional since opinions of the Supreme Court interpreting
the federal constitution including Texas v. White constitute
controlling authority
.27 Kohlhaass attempt to discount the force
of Texas v. White is wholly misplaced. In 1960 Justice
Frankfurter characterized that decision thus:
The readjustment of the relationship between
the States that had remained in the Union and
those that had seceded presented major issues
not only for the political branches of the
Government, the President and the Congress,
but also for this Court. Insofar as the
perplexing and recalcitrant problems of
Reconstruction involved legal solutions, the
evolution of constitutional doctrine was an
indispensable element in the process of
healing the wounds of the sanguinary
conflict. It was in aid of that process that
this Court formulated the doctrine expressed
in the famous sentence in State of Texas v.
White: The Constitution, in all its
provisions, looks to an indestructible Union,
composed of indestructible States.[28]

When the forty-nine-star flag was first raised at Juneau, we
Alaskans committed ourselves to that indestructible Union, for
good or ill, in perpetuity. To suggest otherwise would disparage
the republican character of the National Government.


V. CONCLUSION
Secession is clearly unconstitutional and therefore an
improper subject for the initiative. Accordingly, the lieutenant
governor correctly declined to certify the petition, and the
superior court correctly affirmed his decision. We therefore
AFFIRM the judgment of the superior court.

The ruling of the US Supreme Court on secession DOES stand as precedence... Clearly and undisputably as a matter of law... Determined not only in Texas v. White but as a result of every case which has cited Texas v. White with regards to the rationale used by the court... and in Kohlhass v. State the issue is clearly and without question one of the constitutionality of secession, a case in which the determination of unconstitutionality is also clear.. as it was in every lower court which ruled in the same way...

One can argue that they FEEL it is incorrect... that "at will" or unilateral secession is a sovereign right... that Texas v. White is invalid... that it is not a fact of law in the US... but this is to ignore the absolute reality of the matter... such an argument is suited only to the Court of the Queen of Hearts as it carries no weight in the court of reality...

The argument being made for "at will" secession has no more validity under US law than similar arguments made by "tax protestors" in the US... which is, essentially, none...
 mungojoe

Joined: 11/15/2006
Msg: 75
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History
Is It Time to Secede Yet?
Posted: 11/11/2009 5:16:05 AM

This consideration of necessity was based largely on the geographic positioning of New York and Virginia (thier absence would have split the new nation into 3 discontiguous parts, a likely untenable situation for the new nation) as well as thier economic position among the colonies and thier populations (almost half of the new nation)


Incorrect the debates are avalible online and the provision was inserted to provide the right of sece
sion, as explained by Justcie Pendleton just Marshal ande Madison in va for instance.

This does NOTHING to address the point made and responded to... the "chance to suceed" of the "NEW NATION"...

Here is the original quote responded to with the operative part highlighted

..... Virginia’s ratification (with a vote of 89 to 79) came on June 25, 1788 and New York’s (with a vote of 30 to 27) on July 26, 1788. Even though the ratifications by Virginia and New York occurred after the ratification of the Constitution by the necessary ninth state, New Hampshire, on June 21, 1788, they were nevertheless still viewed as crucial. When the ratifications of Virginia and New York finally occurred, confidence was high that the new nation would at least have a fighting chance to succeed.

The quote references "the success of the nation" only... nothing more... it isn't about the success of ratification... it is about the success of the U.S. AS A NATION...

Now... perhaps you can enlighten us as to what factors other than geography, economics and population were important to...

"the new nation would at least have a fighting chance to succeed"

What, beyond those three factors would have caused the new nation to fail as a nation without New York and Virginia...?
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