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 Author Thread: Ex-atheists?
 scorpiomover

Joined: 4/19/2007
Msg: 101
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Ex-atheists?
Posted: 10/27/2009 11:54:00 PM
RE Msg: 100 by NerdStatus:

We could spelling tests regularly from granny regularly.
What's a “could spelling test”?
Typing error. I type and then consider my words and often change them. I do make mistakes. I'm human, and humans make mistakes.

And, did they teach you the definition of “redundant”?
Yes. What's your point, that you could have said it shorter? I won't deny that I find it difficult to condense my thoughts into a few sentences.


Religion is a catch-all term.
If, by “catch all” you mean...
a strong belief in a supernatural power or powers that control human destiny; "he lost his faith but not his morality"
an institution to express belief in a divine power; "he was raised in the Baptist religion"; "a member of his own faith contradicted him"

wordnetweb.princeton.edu/perl/webwn
That's the dictionary definition. However, authors of dictionaries attempt to give a definition for every word, even if that's quite impossible. For instance, this definition would exclude Buddhism. Further, it doesn't cover many religious views, such as those that claim that G-d created the universe, and set in motion the laws that we call science, but then let things continue without interference, and so doesn't "control human destiny", of which you can find many with that belief, probably millions. It's an incredibly common belief.

So this cannot be a definition of what is and is not a religion. All it is is an attempt to try and give as clear a definition as they can of every word in usage. As you can see, it falls woefully short of the mark. If even those who make painstaking efforts to define words cannot get religion right, how can you expect the word to be used in such a clear-cut way. that it can be said to be clear enough to fit chelloveck's claims about it?
 NerdStatus

Joined: 1/9/2007
Msg: 102
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Ex-atheists?
Posted: 10/28/2009 12:47:11 AM

What's your point, that you could have said it shorter?

My point was three parts:
1) You had an obvious typo.
2) You didn't need to use the word “regularly” twice in that sentence.
3) While describing the quality of your education.

Was that a rhetorical question, or could you really not figure that out on your own?

For instance, this definition would exclude Buddhism.

Buddhists are quick to point out they're not religious.

Further, it doesn't cover many religious views, such as those that claim that G-d created the universe, and set in motion the laws that we call science, but then let things continue without interference

Um... yes it does:
an institution to express belief in a divine power; "he was raised in the Baptist religion"; "a member of his own faith contradicted him" 

and so doesn't "control human destiny"

That was one of several independent criterion. The use of semicolons was not incidental.

So this cannot be a definition of what is and is not a religion.

My options are:
a) accept the definition of religion as postulated by Princeton
b) accept your postulation that Princeton doesn't know what they're talking about
I'll give this decision as much consideration as it deserves.

If even those who make painstaking efforts to define words cannot get religion right, how can you expect the word to be used in such a clear-cut way.

There's a third option:
You = reading comprehension FAIL.
 scorpiomover

Joined: 4/19/2007
Msg: 103
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Ex-atheists?
Posted: 10/28/2009 5:16:30 AM
RE Msg: 102 by NerdStatus:
1) You had an obvious typo.
Yes, I did. I make mistakes every so often. I've taken to not worrying so much about spelling anymore, because I feel more and more like I should really concentrate on more productive things.

2) You didn't need to use the word “regularly” twice in that sentence.
That was also a typo.

3) While describing the quality of your education.
Is that a complete sentence?

Was that a rhetorical question, or could you really not figure that out on your own?
No. I didn't realise I'd written "regularly" twice. Did you seriously think I wrote it deliberately?

For instance, this definition would exclude Buddhism.


Buddhists are quick to point out they're not religious.
That wouldn't make any difference, as the term "religious", really means practising your religion, as opposed to belonging to a religion, but doing nothing about it, such as non-religious Jews, non-religious Muslims, etc.

I think what you mean is THIS:
It is neither a religion in the sense in which that word is commonly understood, for it is not "a system of faith and worship owing any allegiance to a supernatural being."

Buddhism does not demand blind faith from its adherents. Here mere belief is dethroned and is substituted by confidence based on knowledge, which, in Pali, is known as saddha. The confidence placed by a follower on the Buddha is like that of a sick person in a noted physician, or a student in his teacher. A Buddhist seeks refuge in the Buddha because it was he who discovered the path of deliverance.

A Buddhist does not seek refuge in the Buddha with the hope that he will be saved by his (i.e. the Buddha's own) personal purification. The Buddha gives no such guarantee. It is not within the power of a Buddha to wash away the impurities of others. One could neither purify nor defile another. The Buddha, as teacher, instructs us, but we ourselves are directly responsible for our purification. Although a Buddhist seeks refuge in the Buddha, he does not make any self-surrender. Nor does a Buddhist sacrifice his freedom of thought by becoming a follower of the Buddha. He can exercise his own free will and develop his knowledge even to the extent of becoming a Buddha himself.
http://www.buddhanet.net/nutshell03.htm

Now, I'll agree that in many Xian-centric countries, that many in those countries describe religions as being those set of things that Xians or ex-Xians identify with religion. But they ALSO confuse Judaism with Xianity, and think many of the things that Xians believe are true, that Jews believe are true, when they don't at ALL, and I'm not just talking about Jesus here. Jews DON'T belive in blind faith. Jews DON'T believe in missionising. Jews don't believe in the Xian idea of Hell. What Jews call "Gehinnom" which is what Jews generally refer to when they say "Hell", is most similar to what Xians call Purgatory, not Hell at all. So the whole notion of Heaven/Hell doesn't hold either. Further, Jews don't believe that you go to either Heaven or Gehinnom. Jews believe you go to BOTH, Geninnom for your sins for a max of a year, and then Heaven for your good deeds forever. So, by your own standards, and all the American Atheists who were raised in Xianity, Judaism doesn't qualify for a religion EITHER.

The same could equally be said about lots of belief systems around the world, that one might call religions. Either you end up with a set of definitions that are so exclusive that you are only talking about Xianity, and precious little else, and even then, only SOME denominations of Xianity and not others, or you end up with a definition so loose, that you cannot pin a clear definition on it.



Further, it doesn't cover many religious views, such as those that claim that G-d created the universe, and set in motion the laws that we call science, but then let things continue without interference
Um... yes it does:
an institution to express belief in a divine power; "he was raised in the Baptist religion"; "a member of his own faith contradicted him"
Then that rules out Judaism as well, because Judaism has no such institution. There are all sorts of Jewish institution. But Judaism is not an institution in itself. It's a set of beliefs and practises. It's just not that organised. Might have been once. But not for 2000 years. At best, you could say it was a religion, and now it's as much a religion as Buddhism. Jews have far more in common with them than Xians, because Jews don't believe that G-d can have any semblance of a corporeal form, not human, not alien, not like a Greek god, none of that.

and so doesn't "control human destiny"
That was one of several independent criterion. The use of semicolons was not incidental.I know you don't really mean that, because then you'd be claiming that Baptists don't believe in a divine power. You're not that stupid.

So this cannot be a definition of what is and is not a religion.

My options are:
a) accept the definition of religion as postulated by Princeton
b) accept your postulation that Princeton doesn't know what they're talking about
I'll give this decision as much consideration as it deserves.
Nope, you won't. You've already made your mind up. What you mean, is that you didn't and don't give it any consideration at all. If you were raised an orthodox Jew and then you became an atheist, you might have an argument. Are you? Or are you someone raised Protestant, or raised Catholic, and thinks he knows about EVERY system of belief in the entire world? You're trying to shoehorn things that don't fit.


If even those who make painstaking efforts to define words cannot get religion right, how can you expect the word to be used in such a clear-cut way.
There's a third option:
You = reading comprehension FAIL.
Look, I have given you the options that are available. All dictionaries are based on common usage, which is why they change over time. They change with changes in common usage. Now, if you want to argue that Judaism is not a religion, and Xianity is, then fine. But that's not common usage. If you want to argue about the meaning of the word ad infinitum, then go ahead. But at the end of the day, the word religion IS used with regards to Buddhism, and with lots of other religions like it, and that makes it part of common usage, and that makes Princeton's dictionary not in line with what a dictionary is in regards to this word. It doesn't invalidate the whole dictionary, because most of its words are right. But it's not perfect and every dictionary can get a word or two wrong, particularly a difficult word like this.

However, I do get why you get confused. English is not your native language. "Nite" is NOT a word in English. It's a word that is in American usage, but it's not in the English language. You might be speaking American. Were you raised in North America? Do you live there now?
 NerdStatus

Joined: 1/9/2007
Msg: 104
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Ex-atheists?
Posted: 10/28/2009 8:26:17 PM

Is that a complete sentence?

Need I remind you someone accused you of being difficult to understand, and you were in the middle of defending yourself by bragging about the quality of your education? Need I also remind you it's not necessary to have complete sentence structure when making lists – hence the reason I chose that format?

No. I didn't realise I'd written "regularly" twice. Did you seriously think I wrote it deliberately?

You didn't seem to catch it when I pointed it out either. And, during your “sterling education in English”, did your granny drill you on the spelling of “realize”?

I'll connect the dots for you... again...
You're difficult to understand. We're pointing out why you're difficult to understand. Your defense was difficult to understand. It's ironic, and quite funny you have so many typos – right in the middle of describing your “sterling education in English”. You can take this as an opportunity for growth, or to continue to dig yourself a deeper hole. I care not which. Either you become a better person (good), or not (if nothing else, you're entertaining).

Then that rules out Judaism as well, because Judaism has no such institution

It doesn't rule out Judaism at all. You said yourself: It's a set of beliefs and practices. . Jews believe in God – a divine power - which fits well within the definition: an institution to express belief in a divine power
Once again: You = reading comprehension FAIL.

I think what you mean is THIS

That excerpt doesn't say Buddhists believe they're “religious”, therefore it's 100% compatible with what I've been postulating.

because then you'd be claiming that Baptists don't believe in a divine power.

No, I wouldn't be claiming that at all.

You're not that stupid.

You don't know that.

You've already made your mind up.

Which is 100% compatible with my statement.

What you mean, is that you didn't and don't give it any consideration at all.

Actually, I did consider it – just long enough to think something like:
That definition is backed by the Princeton name – quite a prestigious place that Princeton. It's their JOB to teach the best and brightest in the world, if anyone knows how to define words well, they'd certainly be among the best in the business. That caries a lot of proverbial weight. You've come up with no credible way to refute their definition. Therefore, I choose to accept the Princeton definition.

Look, I have given you the options that are available.

You did, I'm sorry, I missed it. In which post did you stipulate “You = reading comprehension FAIL.” as an option? Or do you believe it's not an option at all? This should be interesting...

All dictionaries are based on common usage

You realize you just did two things:
a) made my argument for me
b) shot yourself in the foot by dis-crediting your position
If you accept that the dictionary is the common usage of a word, and I've already demonstrated Atheism doesn't fall under the definition... you're accepting that it's not the common use of the word. Which was my point all along:

If, by “we”, you mean you and whoever else has decided to alter the definition of the word “religion” - then I suppose you're right. If, by “we”, you mean – do I accept your modification? The answer is no – I still accept the standard definition:
a strong belief in a supernatural power or powers that control human destiny; "he lost his faith but not his morality"
an institution to express belief in a divine power; "he was raised in the Baptist religion"; "a member of his own faith contradicted him" 
Source: wordnetweb.princeton.edu/perl/webwn

(Msg: 95)

English is not your native language. You might be speaking American.

Good luck proving this one.
 scorpiomover

Joined: 4/19/2007
Msg: 105
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Posted: 10/28/2009 10:51:27 PM
RE Msg: 104 by NerdStatus:

Is that a complete sentence?
Need I remind you someone accused you of being difficult to understand, and you were in the middle of defending yourself by bragging about the quality of your education?
Yes. That person only started accusing me of being difficult to understand, once he started disagreeing with me about something that I wrote that he did understand well enough to disagree with it. No offence, but that's not because I'm difficult to understand. That's because he doesn't agree with my views.

Sure, I'll agree that some people think I'm difficult to understand. But the acid test of that, is when they AGREE with what I'm saying, completely, but still find me difficult to understand. I'm having a hard time finding people like that here. So it's making me seriously question why I keep getting the same complaint about me being difficult to understand, when it's ONLY from people who clearly don't share my views. It's not like they can just write me off as a creationist American redneck.

Need I also remind you it's not necessary to have complete sentence structure when making lists – hence the reason I chose that format?
Sorry. I still don't understand what you wrote. You wrote:
My point was three parts:
1) You had an obvious typo.
2) You didn't need to use the word “regularly” twice in that sentence.
3) While describing the quality of your education.
I understand that the first point is a complete sentence. The second one is a complete sentence. The third one is a sentence that doesn't seem to be connected to a previous sentence, and yet isn't a complete sentence on it's own.

Did you mean "You had an obvious typo while describing the quality of your education"?
Or did you mean "You didn't need to use the word “regularly” twice in that sentence while describing the quality of your education"?
Or did you have some other implied complete sentence for #3 that I just don't get?
I really still don't see anything in your post that clarified which of those it was. So I still don't know what you meant.

Is this something that Americans do? I don't think I've ever seen this type of writing before, not in books, not in posts, not in speech, not in the media. I honestly cannot recall a sentence structure like this at all.


No. I didn't realise I'd written "regularly" twice. Did you seriously think I wrote it deliberately?
You didn't seem to catch it when I pointed it out either.
I didn't notice I'd written it twice. So when I read And, did they teach you the definition of “redundant”?, I had no idea why you were talking about the word "redundant", when I didn't use it in my post.

And, during your “sterling education in English”, did your granny drill you on the spelling of “realize”?
Yes. It is a formal part of English spelling that all words ending with the suffix sounding "-ize" are written "-ise". American spelling seems to convert all these endings into -ize.

You're difficult to understand. We're pointing out why you're difficult to understand.
I can appreciate that I'm extremely difficult to understand. I'm not a redneck, I'm not ignorant, I'm not stupid, and yet, I express views that seem to be things that many Americans seem to believe only ignorant, stupid people would say. That's unbelievably difficult to understand.

Don't get me wrong. I'd love to have it confirmed that I'm difficult to understand, like that 3 people who agree 100% with my views, say I'm difficult to understand. But I just don't see that on the forums. Perhaps you can find 3 such posters on this thread to prove it to me.

Your defense was difficult to understand.
My argument is incredibly difficult to understand, to people who assume that it's just not possible to claim anything other than your view.

However, I don't think like most people. I don't assume that what I've been told is the only way to understand things. I look at the evidence, and deduce conclusions from that, ignoring what I've been told. THEN I examine what I've been told, to see if that fits into the evidence and those conclusions.

Sometimes, what I've been told is confirmed by the evidence. But just as often, it's not. Very often, there are other ways to look at the same evidence, that can fit the data of the evidence just as well, and very often better. Also, very often, this way of thinking highlights contradictions that just aren't apparent if you assume that what you've been told was true.

But I won't deny that it's incredibly infuriating and it makes other people find me incredibly difficult to understand, and incredibly infuriating. They just can't seem to understand why I just don't think they're right. It's almost as if I'm being deliberately obtuse, because they know for 100% that they are right, and nothing else can be true. It used to drive my teachers crazy. Well, it did, until I kept finding that the teachers on the level above my class were teaching the same material the way I saw things. I've had so many situations in which I found that very well respected experts did think like me, that I've accepted that I'm not wrong because you don't understand me. I'm wrong if you can prove me wrong, without making any assumptions. It's just incredibly hard to do that if you are assuming that what you were told is right, and that's incredibly infuriating.

It's ironic, and quite funny you have so many typos – right in the middle of describing your “sterling education in English”.
Well, it could also be because I had 2 hours sleep for the last 2 nights. The irony is not lost on me, though. But then, you have never met me, and I seem to claim things that I get the impression Americans would think only a stupid creationist would say, which means I must be a stupid creationist. So I can understand the contradiction, and the irony.

You can take this as an opportunity for growth, or to continue to dig yourself a deeper hole. I care not which. Either you become a better person (good), or not (if nothing else, you're entertaining).
Right now, I have no clarity on what you mean by "growth", as you haven't told me exactly how you think I could be a better person, and I can't see any method that you'd approve of, other than just agreeing with you, to just shut you up, and just label you as a dumb American like most people here do about Americans. However, I think you might have a point. So I'll just keep gathering more evidence, until I can draw a definite conclusion.


Then that rules out Judaism as well, because Judaism has no such institution
It doesn't rule out Judaism at all. You said yourself: It's a set of beliefs and practices. . Jews believe in God – a divine power - which fits well within the definition: an institution to express belief in a divine power
Once again: You = reading comprehension FAIL.
Perhaps I don't comprehend your point. But, if I take the definition of the word "religion", as you quoted, then I have a few problems that make it difficult for me to understand:

1) If religion means "a strong belief in a supernatural power or powers that control human destiny", then the many people who believe that supernatural aliens guided humanity, would necessarily be a religion. But as far as I can see, belief in that doesn't seem to be regarded as a religion. I've certainly never heard such beliefs called a religion.

2) If religion means "an institution to express belief in a divine power", then again, I have a few problems:

2.1) I have seen many people talk about "organised religion", referring to a religion based around an organised institution. So religion, without the word organised, would mean a expression of belief in a divine power. But as far as I understand, belief in a divine power is theism. So then religion and theism would be the same definition. It doesn't make sense to me that there are 2 words which are very different, and yet have exactly the same meaning, especially since I've never seen anyone ever claim this.

2.2) Jews refer to religious Jews, and non-religious Jews, even when both belong to the same synagogue, and both believe in G-d. But if religion means "an institution to express belief in a divine power", then it seems to me, that they are both "religious".

3) I am very mystified as to why you and others seem to very strongly say that atheism is not a religion, because it's just a WORD. As far as I can see, it's just an arbitrary word, just like lots of words in the English language. As far as I understand, it really doesn't matter if you use the word "religion" or "wiglet", to mean the same thing. As long as the meaning of the word is the same, then one could replace "religion" with "wiglet", and the sentences should mean the same. However, if the word religion has some very specific connotations and implications beyond just the definition of a word, then I can understand why you might strongly want to disagree at calling atheism a religion. However, unless I know what those connotations are, I just cannot say that such disagreement is reasonable. But if you want to state all the connotations that you attach to the word "religion", then I can understand your reasons. However, since those connotations would be above and beyond the definition of the word, then I couldn't say those connotations apply to those things that you describe as religion, until I've examined if those connotations fit, or not.

But, if you do have a strong reason for such disagreements, then if you list ALL the connotations that you attach to the word "religion", then I can examine them.


I think what you mean is THIS
That excerpt doesn't say Buddhists believe they're “religious”, therefore it's 100% compatible with what I've been postulating.
I can see that. But I know that millions of Jews don't call themselves religious, and they DO believe in G-d. So I have a huge contradiction.


because then you'd be claiming that Baptists don't believe in a divine power.
No, I wouldn't be claiming that at all.
Then as you wrote that I'm with the problem in comprehension, perhaps you would say it much clearer, because I STILL am not comprehending what you've written.


You're not that stupid.
You don't know that.
I was giving you the benefit of the doubt. You're entitled to claim you are stupid. It's your right.

Actually, I did consider it – just long enough to think something like:
That definition is backed by the Princeton name – quite a prestigious place that Princeton. It's their JOB to teach the best and brightest in the world, if anyone knows how to define words well, they'd certainly be among the best in the business. That caries a lot of proverbial weight. You've come up with no credible way to refute their definition. Therefore, I choose to accept the Princeton definition.
Oh. Well, I guess that Princeton carries a lot of weight in America, as I gather it's one of the top universities in America. I can't say that it carries that much weight here, as we have good universities that have a great reputation, that have taught the best and the brightest, like Manchester University, which taught Alan Turing, amongst others:
Nobel prize winners

Overall, there have been 23 Nobel Prizes awarded to staff and students past and present, with some of the most important discoveries of the modern ages being discovered in Manchester.

Chemistry
Ernest Rutherford (awarded Nobel prize in 1908), for his investigations into the disintegration of the elements and the chemistry of radioactive substances (He was the first to probe the atom).
Arthur Harden (awarded Nobel prize in 1929), for investigations on the fermentation of sugar and fermentative enzymes.
Walter Haworth (awarded Nobel prize in 1937), for his investigations on carbohydrates and vitamin C.
Robert Robinson (awarded Nobel prize in 1947), for his investigations on plant products of biological importance, especially the alkaloids.
Alexander Todd (awarded Nobel prize in 1957), for his work on nucleotides and nucleotide co-enzymes.
Melvin Calvin (awarded Nobel prize in 1961), for his research on the carbon dioxide assimilation in plants.
John Charles Polanyi (awarded Nobel prize in 1986), for his contributions concerning the dynamics of chemical elementary processes.
Michael Smith (awarded Nobel prize in 1993), for his fundamental contributions to the establishment of oligonucleotide-based, site-directed mutagenesis and its development for protein studies.

Physics
Joseph John (J. J.) Thomson (awarded Nobel prize in 1906), in recognition of the great merits of his theoretical and experimental investigations on the conduction of electricity by gases.
William Lawrence Bragg (awarded Nobel prize in 1915), for his services in the analysis of crystal structure by means of X-rays.
Niels Bohr (awarded Nobel prize in 1922), for his fundamental contributions to understanding atomic structure and quantum mechanics.
Charles Thomson Rees (C. T. R.) Wilson (awarded Nobel prize in 1927), for his method of making the paths of electrically charged particles visible by condensation of vapour.
James Chadwick (awarded Nobel prize in 1935), for the discovery of the neutron.
George de Hevesy (awarded Nobel prize in 1943), for his work on the use of isotopes as tracers in the study of chemical processes.
Patrick M. Blackett (awarded Nobel prize in 1948), for developing cloud chamber and confirming/discovering positron.
Sir John Douglas****roft (awarded Nobel prize in 1951), for his pioneer work on the splitting of atomic nuclei by artificially accelerated atomic particles and also for his contribution to modern nuclear power.
Hans Bethe (awarded Nobel prize in 1967), for his contributions to the theory of nuclear reactions, especially his discoveries concerning the energy production in stars.
Nevill Francis Mott (awarded Nobel prize in 1977), for his fundamental theoretical investigations of the electronic structure of magnetic and disordered systems.

Physiology and Medicine
Archibald Vivian Hill (awarded Nobel prize in 1922), for his discovery relating to the production of heat in the muscle. One of the founders of the diverse disciplines of biophysics and operations research.
Sir John Sulston (awarded Nobel prize in 2002), for his discoveries concerning 'genetic regulation of organ development and programmed cell death'. In 2007, Sulston was announced as Chair of the newly-founded Institute for Science, Ethics and Innovation (iSEI) at the University of Manchester.[38]

Economics
John Hicks (awarded Nobel prize in 1974), for his pioneering contributions to general economic equilibrium theory and welfare theory.
Sir Arthur Lewis (awarded Nobel prize in 1979), for his pioneering research into economic development research with particular consideration of the problems of developing countries.
Joseph E. Stiglitz (awarded Nobel prize in 2001), for his analyses of markets with asymmetric information. Currently, Professor Joseph E. Stiglitz heads the Brooks World Poverty Institute (BWPI) at the University of Manchester.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/University_of_Manchester#Nobel_prize_winners

Mind you, Manchester university is just considered a good university here. It's not considered the best, just because many of the top people in many subjects studied there.

You did, I'm sorry, I missed it. In which post did you stipulate “You = reading comprehension FAIL.” as an option? Or do you believe it's not an option at all? This should be interesting...
It's a possibility, just as it's a possibility that an AI is posting these posts. It's just a possibility, out of more than one.


All dictionaries are based on common usage
You realize you just did two things:
a) made my argument for me
b) shot yourself in the foot by dis-crediting your position
If you accept that the dictionary is the common usage of a word, and I've already demonstrated Atheism doesn't fall under the definition... you're accepting that it's not the common use of the word. Which was my point all along:
If, by “we”, you mean you and whoever else has decided to alter the definition of the word “religion” - then I suppose you're right. If, by “we”, you mean – do I accept your modification? The answer is no – I still accept the standard definition:
a strong belief in a supernatural power or powers that control human destiny; "he lost his faith but not his morality"
an institution to express belief in a divine power; "he was raised in the Baptist religion"; "a member of his own faith contradicted him"
Source: wordnetweb.princeton.edu/perl/webwn
I guess I'm not understanding this all that well. AFAIK, dictionaries are based on common usage. If a word is used by people in a certain way, then it forms part of the common usage, and the way that it is used is the definition of the word. Dictionary writers then figure out how people use that word, and put it in a book, which is what we call a dictionary. When a word is no longer used by the vast majority of people, then it ceases to be a word in common usage, and it is removed from the next version of the dictionary. When a new word becomes used by the vast majority of people, then it also becomes a word in common usage, and it is added to the next version of the dictionary. When a word's usage changes, then it's definition in common usage changes, and it's definition in the dictionary changes in the next version.

In short, common usage dictates what is in the dictionary. Dictionaries do not dictate what is common usage. Dictionaries are used by individuals to determine what the common usage of a particular word is, which is what we call its meaning or definition, that being how it is used by the majority of people.

FYI, I did look up the meaning of the word "religion" a bit more:

Religious scholars generally agree that writing a single definition that applies to all religions is difficult or even impossible, because all people examine religion with some kind of critical eye, and the term is therefore fraught with ideological consequences for anyone who might want to construct a universal definition. Talal Asad writes that "there cannot be a universal definition of religion ... because that definition is itself the historical product of discursive processes"[5]; Thomas A. Tweed, while defending the idea of religion in general, writes that "it would be foolish to set up an abstract definition of religion's essence, and then proceed to defend that definition from all comers."[6]
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Religion#Definitions_of_religion

Also, on the BBC website, which is generally considered by everyone I've come across, that it is a global standard of objective reporting and journalism, yet it lists Buddhism as a religion.
http://www.bbc.co.uk/religion/religions/

You might also like to look at the view of the Supreme Court:
But whether atheism is a “religion” for First Amendment purposes is a somewhat different question than whether its adherents believe in a supreme being, or attend regular devotional services, or have a sacred Scripture. The Supreme Court has said that a religion, for purposes of the First Amendment, is distinct from a “way of life,” even if that way of life is inspired by philosophical beliefs or other secular concerns. See Wisconsin v. Yoder, 406 U.S. 205, 215-16 (1972). A religion need not be based on a belief in the existence of a supreme being (or beings, for polytheistic faiths), see Torcaso v. Watkins, 367 U.S. 488, 495 & n.11 (1961); Malnak v. Yogi, 592 F.2d 197, 200-15 (3d Cir. 1979) (Adams, J., concurring); Theriault v. Silber, 547 F.2d 1279, 1281 (5th Cir. 1977) (per curiam), nor must it be a mainstream faith, see Thomas v. Review Bd., 450 U.S. 707, 714 (1981); Lindell v. McCallum, 352 F.3d 1107, 1110 (7th Cir. 2003).

Without venturing too far into the realm of the philosophical, we have suggested in the past that when a person sincerely holds beliefs dealing with issues of “ultimate concern” that for her occupy a “place parallel to that filled by . . . God in traditionally religious persons,” those beliefs represent her religion. Fleischfresser v. Dirs. of Sch.
Dist.
200, 15 F.3d 680, 688 n.5 (7th Cir. 1994) (internal citation and quotation omitted); see also Welsh v. United States, 398 U.S. 333, 340 (1970); United States v. Seeger, 380 U.S. 163, 184-88 (1965). We have already indicated that atheism may be considered, in this specialized sense, a religion. See Reed v. Great Lakes Cos., 330 F.3d 931, 934 (7th Cir. 2003) (“If we think of religion as taking a position on divinity, then atheism is indeed a form of religion.”). Kaufman claims that his atheist beliefs play a central role in his life, and the defendants do not dispute that his beliefs are deeply and sincerely held.

The Supreme Court has recognized atheism as equivalent to a “religion” for purposes of the First Amendment on numerous occasions, most recently in McCreary County, Ky. v. American Civil Liberties Union of Ky., 125 S.Ct. 2722 (2005). The Establishment Clause itself says only that “Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion,” but the Court understands the reference to religion to include what it often calls “nonreligion.” In McCreary County, it described the touchstone of Establishment Clause analysis as “the principle that the First Amendment mandates government neutrality between religion and religion, and between religion and nonreligion.” Id. at *10 (internal quotations omitted). As the Court put it in Wallace v. Jaffree, 472 U.S. 38 (1985):

At one time it was thought that this right [referring to the right to choose one’s own creed] merely proscribed the preference of one Christian sect over another, but would not require equal respect for the conscience of the infidel, the atheist, or the adherent of a non-Christian faith such as Islam or Judaism. But when the underlying principle has been examined in the crucible of litigation, the Court has unambiguously concluded that the individual freedom of conscience protected by the First Amendment embraces the right to select any religious faith or none at all.

Id. at 52-53. In keeping with this idea, the Court has adopted a broad definition of “religion” that includes nontheistic and atheistic beliefs, as well as theistic ones. Thus, in Torcaso v. Watkins, 367 U.S. 488, it said that a state cannot “pass laws or impose requirements which aid all religions as against non-believers, and neither can [it] aid those religions based on a belief in the existence of God as against those religions founded on different beliefs.” Id. at 495. Indeed, Torcaso specifically included “Secular
Humanism” as an example of a religion. Id. at 495 n.11.
http://www.ca7.uscourts.gov/tmp/S5015I6C.pdf


English is not your native language. You might be speaking American.
Good luck proving this one.
I would have thought that using realize instead of realise would be enough of an indicator.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_and_British_English_spelling_differences#-ise.2C_-ize
 CountIbli

Joined: 6/1/2005
Msg: 106
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Posted: 11/2/2009 8:10:22 PM


Don't get me wrong. I'd love to have it confirmed that I'm difficult to understand, like that 3 people who agree 100% with my views, say I'm difficult to understand. But I just don't see that on the forums. Perhaps you can find 3 such posters on this thread to prove it to me.


For what it's worth, I disagree with you all the time, but don't find it difficult to understand you.

Seriously, was anyone really confused by the use of realise instead of realize?
 scorpiomover

Joined: 4/19/2007
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Posted: 11/6/2009 9:43:51 AM
RE Msg: 106 by CountIbli:

Don't get me wrong. I'd love to have it confirmed that I'm difficult to understand, like that 3 people who agree 100% with my views, say I'm difficult to understand. But I just don't see that on the forums. Perhaps you can find 3 such posters on this thread to prove it to me.
For what it's worth, I disagree with you all the time, but don't find it difficult to understand you.
Thanks. Now I have one. Although you still seem to have great trouble misunderstanding me about Wellhausen's Documentary Hypothesis. Now all I need is to get you to understand my views on the hypothesis, and 2 more people, and I can disprove my contention.

Seriously, was anyone really confused by the use of realise instead of realize?
I thought not. But another North American poster criticised me for the usage of -ise instead of -ize. So yes, there really are people confused by it. Yet again, another thing that confuses people. Some think no-one is confused by it, and others think everyone who uses -ise is wrong.
 CountIbli

Joined: 6/1/2005
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Posted: 11/6/2009 12:12:58 PM


Thanks. Now I have one. Although you still seem to have great trouble misunderstanding me about Wellhausen's Documentary Hypothesis.


I think I understand your position viz. all the arguments in favor the Documentary Hypothesis can be explained with other hypotheses. I simply find it ad hoc, less plausible, more complicated, and unconvincing when compared to the DH.
 scorpiomover

Joined: 4/19/2007
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Posted: 11/6/2009 12:41:35 PM
RE Msg: 108 by CountIbli:
I think I understand your position viz. all the arguments in favor the Documentary Hypothesis can be explained with other hypotheses.
No. My view is that it just doesn't fit with the actual nature of the text. The Documentary Hypothesis generalises the words of the Bible, with no desire to make it consistent with each passage that it would apply to.

I understand that this is quite a common practise in academia, to assume that others will come along and fill in the gaps. The thing is, that all that happens is that in the future, some hypotheses are found to be true in the course of time, and others are rejected entirely. However, my approach is to realise this, and to therefore analyse the relevant pieces of evidence in enough detail to deduce whether or not the hypothesis is something that can merely be slightly amended in such a way as to fit well with the evidence, or the details form a consistent set of direct implications that will necessarily lead to an eventual rejection of the theory. That way, I can work out the actual validity of the theory decades in advance of the current academic views. It's hard to get used to, if you're not used to it, and most are. But once you do, it really becomes quite easy with practice.

In the case of the Documentary Hypothesis, I have compared it to actual passages, and it simply results in far too many questions and problems. If I believed the Documentary Hypothesis was true, then I'd be forced to conclude that each word of the Bible was written by a different person, and then even the Documentary Hypothesis would be false anyway.

I simply find it ad hoc, less plausible, more complicated, and unconvincing when compared to the DH.
I keep pointing out that if you've never really read the Bible in the English, or skimmed a bit of it once in Hebrew, and then read it, it sounds very plausible, because it reads as if someone really made a huge effort. But I've been reading the Bible for the past 20 years in the original Hebrew, and it just doesn't gel at all with it. Very few people have that level of expertise with the Bible, and still hold by the DH. But there are hundreds of thousands who do have that expertise, an don't think the DH is plausible.
 CountIbli

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Posted: 11/6/2009 1:34:02 PM


I keep pointing out that if you've never really read the Bible in the English, or skimmed a bit of it once in Hebrew, and then read it, it sounds very plausible, because it reads as if someone really made a huge effort.


I've given considerable time to the reading and study of the Bible (nearly 20 years myself, with about half of that as an atheist). I've stuck to English because I don't speak Greek or Hebrew, however on occassion I've ventured into Greek or Hebrew to investigate a certain point. Even in English the patchwork nature of the Bible is apparent. It's obvious from the first two chapters of the Bible, which contain 2 different accounts of creation. Then you get to the story of Noah and you suddenly realize that there are two accounts. First he had two of each animal coming aboard, then he had two of each unclean and 7 pairs of each clean, even though the laws of ritual cleanliness didn't exist yet. The duration of the flood is inconsistent (40 or 150 days).



Very few people have that level of expertise with the Bible, and still hold by the DH. But there are hundreds of thousands who do have that expertise, an don't think the DH is plausible.


This is inaccurate. Wellhausen did not invent the DH, instead his major contribution was the chronological ordering of J, E, D, and P. His specific proposal has come under fire, but the general proposal of 4 sources plus redactors and editors is alive and well. It still forms the basis of much scholarship in the field. Even researchers who reject the DH still accept that there were multiple sources, various chronological layers, redactions and other editing. The idea that the Pentateuch was written by one man, especially Moses, is dead in the water. Only conservative theologians believe that anymore.
 scorpiomover

Joined: 4/19/2007
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Posted: 11/6/2009 5:58:02 PM
RE Msg: 110 by CountIbli:
I've given considerable time to the reading and study of the Bible (nearly 20 years myself, with about half of that as an atheist). I've stuck to English because I don't speak Greek or Hebrew, however on occassion I've ventured into Greek or Hebrew to investigate a certain point.
I started doing that too. Problem is, it makes no sense in English, not most versions, and once I read 4 chapters in Hebrew, it was SO different, it was like reading not just a completely different author, but one with an entirely different view of life, and a wholly different attitude to the world. Really, it's not the same book. But you don't get that from checking out a verse here or there. It's like reading a line or two of The Little Prince by Antoine De Saint-Exupery, and thinking it's a book just for kids, or reading a couple of lines of Charlie and the Chocolate Factory by Roald Dahl and thinking that there are no jokes aimed at adults in it. You really have to sit and read a good few chapters, in Hebrew, as if it really was a proper book that you were reading in Hebrew, before you get that feel, the same as other classics.

Even in English the patchwork nature of the Bible is apparent. It's obvious from the first two chapters of the Bible, which contain 2 different accounts of creation.
Exactly. When you read the first 2 chapters in the Bible, in the original Hebrew, the first thing that strikes you is the order is different, but the most overwhelming thing is that the language is so different in Hebrew, that the second thing that hits you, is that it's described from an entirely different perspective. The first is an overhead perspective, and the second is a side perspective, as if you are a bystander on creation. Then on your 3rd pass through the Bible, you realise that both are not at all the normal style of prose, and are not the normal style of poetry either. Then you start to notice that that the stories are nearly identical, but describing 2 different perspectives of the same story, but dealing with 2 different sets of issues of the same story, the first relating the actual layout of creation of the universe, the Earth, and species, and the second really focussing on the creation of man, and his relation to it.

Then you get to the story of Noah and you suddenly realize that there are two accounts. First he had two of each animal coming aboard, then he had two of each unclean and 7 pairs of each clean, even though the laws of ritual cleanliness didn't exist yet. The duration of the flood is inconsistent (40 or 150 days).
In the Hebrew, you get an entirely different feel, that there is an actual state of Tumah and Taharah, which doesn't really translate into any concept of cleanliness or uncleanliness as we would describe it in English, almost like there are multiple dimensions and qualities to existence, of which one quality is called Tumah and Taharah. Of those, 7 pairs of Tahor animals are required to be taken, 2 pairs of non-Tahor animals, and 7 pairs of birds, irrespective of their state of Tumah and Taharah. Fish are not mentioned. Reading the Bible in the Hebrew, one starts to take quantum physics, and the concept that there are qualities that aren't the physical ones in classical physics, for granted, because it just naturally makes a lot more sense in terms of the Hebrew words overall.


Very few people have that level of expertise with the Bible, and still hold by the DH. But there are hundreds of thousands who do have that expertise, an don't think the DH is plausible.
This is inaccurate. Wellhausen did not invent the DH, instead his major contribution was the chronological ordering of J, E, D, and P. His specific proposal has come under fire, but the general proposal of 4 sources plus redactors and editors is alive and well. It still forms the basis of much scholarship in the field. Even researchers who reject the DH still accept that there were multiple sources, various chronological layers, redactions and other editing. The idea that the Pentateuch was written by one man, especially Moses, is dead in the water. Only conservative theologians believe that anymore.
I never said that the idea was not believed by anyone. I merely said that it wasn't believed by the vast majority of people with that level of expertise. You're one of the most knowledgable people on POF, who could equally match wits with those scholars, and yet even you admit that you've read only a verse here or 2 in Hebrew. I'm talking about people who sit and read the Bible in the Hebrew all the time, day after day, year after year, and only look at the English occasionally, if ever, who think and understand it natively, without need to read a translation all the time to tell them what to think, people who really understand the text in situ. Orthodox Jews do that, for Orthodox Jews are taught that to be a member of the Sanhedrin, you had to understand all the languages of the world at that time, even though there were translators aplenty, for a translation, no matter how good, will miss the overall nuances of speech, diction, slang, and language, whether written or spoken. You or I would not be accepted onto the Sanhedrin, for that reason alone. Orthodox Jews know that one simply cannot rely on a translation, not even if you can look up a word here or there. If you do, you'll end up misunderstanding one phrase said in a certain way, such as in the scene in "My Cousin Vinny", when the police officer reads the same words spoken "I killed the clerk. I killed the clerk." When we've seen that the phrase was said rhetorically "I killed the clerk? I killed the clerk?" and was not a confession at all, but rather an expression of surprise and shock at the accusation.

These things could never be misunderstood if the Bible had been written in English, or German, for those are native tongues of European and North American scholars, and we would argue vehemently that they understand it well, even if anyone claimed that Tom Sawyer was written by 5 different authors. But the Bible is not written in Hebrew, and the text is actually so different that we cannot treat it as such.

FYI, you might be right in that amongst English speakers, or German speakers, the DH is assumed to be true, and only conservative theologians still think it false. But amongst people who read the Bible in the native Hebrew for the last 20 years? No. Amongst them, it's considered ridiculous. There just are very few such scholars outside the Orthodox Jewish community, because most people outside of Israel treat Hebrew like a dead language, and have less contact with it than you do with the customs of the Masai Mara.
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